Pathology · single question
A patient received a hard occlusal splint 5 months ago and returns with generalized facial muscle pain, maximum opening limited to 15 mm, pain on opening and joint clicking. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Refer for advanced imaging of the joint
- A. Continuing to adjust a splint that has produced no improvement over five months delays diagnosis of an underlying internal derangement or degenerative joint change.
- B. Switching to a soft splint is another conservative appliance; it does not address the failure of conservative therapy or establish a diagnosis, and soft splints can aggravate parafunction in some patients.
- C. Correct. This patient has FAILED conservative therapy — five months of splint use with worsening pain, clicking and severe limitation (15 mm is markedly restricted; normal opening is 40–55 mm). Failure of conservative management with progressive restriction is the indication to escalate to advanced IMAGING (MRI for disc position and soft tissue; CBCT for osseous change) and specialist referral, rather than repeating a therapy that has not worked.
- D. Chronic opioid therapy is inappropriate for TMD — it masks symptoms, carries dependence risk and does not treat the cause.