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Pharmacology · single question

A 72-year-old has swelling and fever and was prescribed Percocet (oxycodone + acetaminophen); when symptoms did not improve, the physician increased the dose. Why did the symptoms most likely persist?

  1. He has renal disease, so the drug is not metabolized properly
  2. Percocet has no anti-inflammatory action, so it cannot reduce the underlying infection/inflammation
  3. Increasing the dose caused drug resistance
  4. Codeine does not work in patients over 70
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Correct answer: B. Percocet has no anti-inflammatory action, so it cannot reduce the underlying infection/inflammation

Opioids (oxycodone) and acetaminophen relieve pain and fever but have essentially no anti-inflammatory effect and no antimicrobial action; swelling/fever from an infection require antibiotics and source control, not more opioid.Other options: Renal metabolism, 'resistance,' and an age-specific codeine failure do not explain the lack of resolution of an inflammatory/infectious process.Key exam takeaway: Opioids/acetaminophen treat pain and fever, not infection or inflammation; treat the underlying cause.

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