Pathology · single question

Many patients experience recurrent herpes labialis yet have no recollection of ever having had primary herpetic gingivostomatitis. What is the MOST likely explanation?

  1. Recurrent herpes labialis is unrelated to HSV-1
  2. Recurrent lesions represent a first exposure each time
  3. The primary infection was subclinical or asymptomatic
  4. The virus is transmitted only in adulthood
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Correct answer: C. The primary infection was subclinical or asymptomatic

  • A. Recurrent herpes labialis is caused by HSV-1 in the overwhelming majority of cases.
  • B. Recurrence by definition requires prior infection and latency; it is not a new primary exposure.
  • C. Correct. The great majority of PRIMARY HSV-1 infections are SUBCLINICAL or so mild that they are never recognised as anything more than a childhood viral illness. The virus nonetheless travels up the sensory axons and establishes LATENCY in the TRIGEMINAL GANGLION. Later reactivation — triggered by ultraviolet light, fever, stress, trauma or immunosuppression — produces recurrent herpes labialis in a patient with no memory of a primary episode.
  • D. Most seroconversion occurs in childhood, not adulthood.

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