Pathology · single question

A 17-year-old boy presents with a palatal lesion while under stress, otherwise healthy with no other symptoms. What is the diagnosis?

  1. Varicella zoster virus
  2. Aphthous ulcer
  3. Primary herpes (herpetic gingivostomatitis)
  4. Recurrent herpes (intraoral recurrent herpes simplex)
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Recurrent herpes (intraoral recurrent herpes simplex)

  • A. VZV (shingles) follows a dermatomal pattern and would NOT present as a single palatal lesion in a teenager under stress — this description is classic for recurrent HSV-1.
  • B. Aphthous ulcers could fit GENERALLY (stress-triggered, minor symptoms), but aphthous ulcers affect the MOVABLE mucosa (floor of mouth, buccal mucosa, soft palate borders) — NOT the hard palate. The hard palate is a key location.
  • C. Primary herpes (first HSV-1 infection) occurs most often in young children (1-5 years), is much more severe (high fever, widespread vesicles, severe pain), and is not the presentation of a single palatal lesion in a stressed teenager.
  • D. RECURRENT INTRAORAL HERPES SIMPLEX is the diagnosis. In immunocompetent patients, recurrent HSV-1 lesions occur on KERATINIZED, BOUND MUCOSA (hard palate, attached gingiva) — unlike aphthous ulcers which affect non-keratinized mucosa. STRESS is a classic trigger. The lesion starts as a cluster of small vesicles that ulcerate. The teenager's otherwise healthy status with stress as a trigger and hard palate location = recurrent herpes.

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