Medical Emergencies · single question
A patient presents with recurrent joint pain and swelling (including the knees) and has a history of splenectomy. Which condition best explains this picture?
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Correct answer: D. Sickle cell anemia
- A. Behçet disease presents with recurrent oral and genital ulceration, uveitis and skin lesions. Arthritis occurs, but splenectomy is not part of the picture.
- B. Rheumatoid arthritis causes symmetric small-joint synovitis. Felty syndrome (RA plus splenomegaly and neutropenia) exists but is uncommon and would not be the best fit here.
- C. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative, non-inflammatory disease of older patients with no splenic association.
- D. CORRECT. SICKLE CELL ANEMIA produces vaso-occlusive crises that classically involve bone and joints, and it causes repeated splenic infarction leading to AUTOSPLENECTOMY — a functionally absent spleen, sometimes formalised by surgical removal. The combination of painful swollen joints plus a history relating to the spleen is the diagnostic pairing being tested. These patients are functionally asplenic and therefore at high risk from encapsulated organisms.
Note: Dental implications of sickle cell: avoid hypoxia and dehydration, treat infection aggressively, consider prophylaxis given functional asplenia, and expect a 'stepladder' trabecular pattern with possible mandibular infarcts on radiographs.
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