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Pathology · single question

A 42-year-old HIV-positive patient has a painless purplish-red lesion on the hard palate. Biopsy shows spindle cell proliferation with slit-like vascular spaces. Which statement BEST describes this condition?

  1. It only occurs in HIV-positive patients
  2. It is a malignancy of vascular origin
  3. It is associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection
  4. It most commonly affects children with no systemic disease
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Correct answer: B. It is a malignancy of vascular origin

  • A. INCORRECT. Kaposi sarcoma has several variants (classic, endemic, iatrogenic, AIDS-related), so it is not limited to HIV.
  • B. CORRECT. The findings describe Kaposi sarcoma, a malignant vascular (endothelial) tumor driven by HHV-8.
  • C. INCORRECT. The causative agent is HHV-8, not Epstein-Barr virus.
  • D. INCORRECT. It is uncommon in healthy children. The endemic form affects African children but with systemic involvement.

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