Biostatistics & Research · single question

A study comparing articaine vs lidocaine shows: RR = 3.1, 95% CI = 3.4–4.7, p-value < 0.001. What does this tell us about efficacy?

  1. Articaine is safer to use than lidocaine
  2. Lidocaine is more effective than articaine
  3. Articaine is more effective than lidocaine
  4. Articaine and lidocaine have the same efficacy
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Correct answer: C. Articaine is more effective than lidocaine

✓ C) Articaine is more effective than lidocaine is correct.
RR (relative risk/ratio) = 3.1 means articaine's success rate is 3.1× that of lidocaine — indicating superior efficacy. The p-value < 0.001 confirms the result is highly statistically significant (not due to chance). The 95% CI of 3.4–4.7 does not cross 1.0, further confirming significance. Safety is not addressed by these statistics — RR here measures effectiveness, not adverse events.
  • A. RR = 3.1 with CI (3.4-4.7) not crossing 1 and p <0.001 means: articaine achieves the anesthesia outcome 3.1× more often than lidocaine, and this result is STATISTICALLY SIGNIFICANT (p <0.001) and precisely estimated (CI does not cross 1). Therefore, ARTICAINE IS MORE EFFECTIVE THAN LIDOCAINE for anesthetic efficacy.
  • B. RR (Relative Risk) measures EFFICACY, not safety. The RR of 3.1 tells us about how much more likely articaine achieves the outcome than lidocaine — it says nothing about safety.
  • C. If they were equivalent, the RR would be ~1.0 and the CI would include 1. RR of 3.1 with p <0.001 clearly shows they are NOT equivalent.
  • D. RR = 3.1 FAVORS articaine. An RR >1 (when articaine is the reference) means the articaine group has 3.1× MORE of the outcome (presumably, better anesthesia). Lidocaine being more effective is the opposite.

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