Periodontics · single question
A patient with 2 years of untreated periodontal disease has pain at #29, bone loss, and a periapical abscess on X-ray. Best description of this condition?
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Correct answer: A. Periodontal disease as primary with secondary endodontic involvement
The timeline (untreated perio → periapical abscess) indicates primary periodontal disease with secondary endodontic involvement.
- A. ✅ CORRECT – Periodontal disease is primary; secondary endodontic involvement developed.
- B. ❌ True combined means both independently present; this case has perio as the primary driver.
- C. ❌ Primary periodontic lesion alone would not show prominent periapical abscess.
- D. ❌ Primary endodontic lesion starts in the pulp; long-standing perio was the initiating factor here.