Oral Surgery · single question
A patient presents with a partially erupted lower left third molar, with pain and red, swollen gingiva on the left side (pericoronitis). Which of the following would you NOT do?
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Prescribe antifungal medication
- A. CORRECT — Antifungal medication is NOT indicated for pericoronitis. Pericoronitis is a bacterial (not fungal) infection of the pericoronal tissue. Antifungals would have no therapeutic benefit.
- B. INCORRECT — Antibiotics (e.g., amoxicillin or metronidazole) are indicated when pericoronitis presents with systemic signs or severe local infection.
- C. INCORRECT — Extraction is a definitive treatment for pericoronitis, especially for lower third molars that cannot fully erupt.
- D. INCORRECT — Irrigation under the operculum (with chlorhexidine or saline) is a first-line treatment for pericoronitis, removing food debris and bacteria.