Pathology · single question
A 17-year-old boy comes with his parents complaining of a lesion on the palate. He has been under stress recently but is otherwise healthy with no systemic symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Correct answer: C. Recurrent herpes (Herpes Labialis/Intraoral)
✓ C) Recurrent herpes is correct.
Recurrent intraoral herpes simplex (type 1) typically occurs on KERATINIZED tissue — hard palate, attached gingiva — and is triggered by stress, sunlight, immunosuppression. The patient is older (17), suggesting a recurrence (primary HSV usually occurs in younger children with systemic symptoms). Primary herpes causes widespread ulcers with fever/lymphadenopathy. Aphthous ulcers occur on NON-keratinized mucosa. VZV would cause unilateral dermatomal distribution.
Recurrent intraoral herpes simplex (type 1) typically occurs on KERATINIZED tissue — hard palate, attached gingiva — and is triggered by stress, sunlight, immunosuppression. The patient is older (17), suggesting a recurrence (primary HSV usually occurs in younger children with systemic symptoms). Primary herpes causes widespread ulcers with fever/lymphadenopathy. Aphthous ulcers occur on NON-keratinized mucosa. VZV would cause unilateral dermatomal distribution.