Prosthodontics & Occlusion · patient case with 5 questions

Radiographic findings, prosthodontic planning and periodontal diagnosis

Scenario: Five items.

Question 1

A panoramic radiograph in a patient with Eagle syndrome would show what?

  1. An elongated coronoid process
  2. A calcified submandibular sialolith
  3. A calcified carotid atheroma at the level of C3-C4
  4. An elongated styloid process or mineralised stylohyoid ligament
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Correct answer: D. An elongated styloid process or mineralised stylohyoid ligament

  • A. Coronoid hyperplasia limits opening through impingement on the zygoma — a different entity.
  • B. A submandibular stone is a discrete radiopacity in the floor of the mouth or gland, better shown on an occlusal film.
  • C. Carotid calcifications appear as vertical radiopacities adjacent to the cervical vertebrae. They are an important incidental finding warranting medical referral, but they are unrelated to Eagle syndrome.
  • D. Correct. Eagle syndrome is elongation of the styloid process or ossification of the stylohyoid ligament, producing throat pain, dysphagia and pain on turning the head — symptoms easily mistaken for a dental or TMJ complaint.

Note: The normal styloid process is roughly 25 mm. Beyond about 30 mm it is considered elongated, though many elongated processes are entirely asymptomatic.

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Question 2

What is the most important consideration when preparing abutments for a fixed partial denture?

  1. A common path of insertion for all abutments
  2. The shade of the pontic
  3. The occlusal scheme of the opposing arch
  4. The cement selected
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Correct answer: A. A common path of insertion for all abutments

  • A. Correct. A multi-unit fixed restoration is rigid and must seat as one piece. If the abutment preparations do not share a single path of insertion, the bridge simply cannot be placed.
  • B. Shade matters aesthetically but does not determine whether the prosthesis can be delivered at all.
  • C. The opposing occlusion must be assessed, but it does not govern the geometry of the preparations.
  • D. Cement selection follows the restorative material and is a later decision.

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Question 3

A patient who completed chemotherapy a year ago presents with mucosal lesions. What is the most likely explanation?

  1. Oral mucositis
  2. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
  3. Squamous cell carcinoma
  4. Traumatic ulceration
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Oral mucositis

  • A. Correct per the recall key. Mucositis is the classic chemotherapy-related mucosal complication — diffuse erythema and painful ulceration of non-keratinised mucosa.
  • B. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is a childhood illness with fever and generalised gingival involvement; recurrent intraoral herpes in an immunosuppressed adult is possible but would appear on keratinised mucosa.
  • C. Malignancy must always be excluded in a persistent lesion, but a diffuse mucosal presentation does not fit.
  • D. Traumatic ulceration is solitary and related to an identifiable cause.

Note: ⚑ The timing does not fit well. Mucositis is acute — it begins within days of chemotherapy and resolves within weeks of finishing. Mucosal lesions a full year later point instead to graft-versus-host disease (if transplanted), candidiasis, or a lichenoid reaction. The key is kept as recalled, but treat the timing as a flaw in the item rather than a rule to memorise.

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Question 4

How is a Kennedy Class I arch identified?

  1. A unilateral edentulous area with teeth both anterior and posterior to it
  2. A single edentulous area crossing the midline, anterior to the remaining teeth
  3. A unilateral edentulous area posterior to the remaining teeth
  4. Bilateral edentulous areas posterior to the remaining natural teeth
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Correct answer: D. Bilateral edentulous areas posterior to the remaining natural teeth

  • A. That describes Class III, a bounded unilateral saddle, which is entirely tooth-borne.
  • B. That describes Class IV, a single anterior edentulous area crossing the midline. By definition Class IV admits no modification spaces.
  • C. That describes Class II, the unilateral distal extension.
  • D. Correct. Class I is the bilateral distal extension case — the most demanding to design, because support is shared between teeth and mucosa and rotation about the fulcrum line must be controlled.

Note: Applegate's rules: classify after any extractions, and let the most posterior edentulous area determine the class.

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Question 5

A patient has inflamed, painful gingiva with a fetid odour. What is the diagnosis?

  1. Necrotising periodontal disease
  2. Desquamative gingivitis
  3. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)
  4. Plaque-induced gingivitis
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Correct answer: A. Necrotising periodontal disease

  • A. Correct. Punched-out, cratered interdental papillae with a grey pseudomembrane, pain and a distinctive fetid odour make the diagnosis. Stress, smoking, poor hygiene and immunosuppression are the usual predisposing factors.
  • B. Desquamative gingivitis is a clinical description of erythema and sloughing, usually a manifestation of lichen planus or a vesiculobullous disease, and is not acutely painful in this way.
  • C. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis produces the strawberry gingivitis of granular red hyperplastic tissue, with sinus and renal involvement — rare and quite different.
  • D. Ordinary plaque-induced gingivitis is not painful and does not destroy the papillae or produce this odour.

Note: Pain, interdental necrosis and bleeding are the three defining features. Loss of attachment distinguishes necrotising periodontitis from necrotising gingivitis.

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