Pathology · patient case with 4 questions

Neurology, diuretics and salivary assessment

Scenario: Four items.

Question 1

All of the following are features of Parkinson disease EXCEPT:

  1. Visual loss
  2. Bradykinesia
  3. Akinesia
  4. Resting tremor
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Visual loss

  • A. Correct — this is the exception. Parkinson disease does not cause loss of vision. It is a movement disorder from dopaminergic degeneration in the substantia nigra.
  • B. Bradykinesia, the slowness of movement once begun, is required for the clinical diagnosis.
  • C. Akinesia — difficulty initiating movement — is a cardinal feature and shows up as the characteristic hesitancy in starting to walk.
  • D. A resting tremor, classically pill-rolling and improving with voluntary movement, is the third cardinal sign alongside rigidity.

Note: Practical implications: reduced blink and drooling, difficulty with oral hygiene, and a real risk of orthostatic hypotension from levodopa when the chair is raised.

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Question 2

A patient takes triamterene combined with hydrochlorothiazide. What does the triamterene component prevent?

  1. Hypokalaemia
  2. Hypercalcaemia
  3. Hypocalcaemia
  4. Hyperkalaemia
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Hypokalaemia

  • A. Correct. Thiazides waste potassium. Triamterene is potassium-sparing, so combining the two offsets the loss and keeps serum potassium in range — which is precisely why the two are formulated together.
  • B. For the same reason, hypercalcaemia is a possible thiazide effect rather than something triamterene guards against.
  • C. Thiazides actually reduce urinary calcium excretion and tend to raise serum calcium slightly.
  • D. Hyperkalaemia is the risk of triamterene given alone or with an ACE inhibitor, not something it prevents.

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Question 3

A labial minor salivary gland biopsy is taken. What would you expect to find in a patient with sicca symptoms?

  1. Focal lymphocytic infiltration of the glandular tissue
  2. Ductal dilatation with mucin extravasation
  3. Granulomas with giant cells
  4. Adipose tissue replacement only
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Focal lymphocytic infiltration of the glandular tissue

  • A. Correct. Focal lymphocytic sialadenitis — dense aggregates of lymphocytes around ducts and acini — is the histologic hallmark of Sjögren syndrome, and the focus score from a lower labial biopsy is part of the classification criteria.
  • B. Mucin extravasation with a granulation tissue wall describes a mucocele, a completely different lesion.
  • C. Granulomas would suggest sarcoidosis, which can mimic Sjögren clinically but is histologically distinct.
  • D. Fatty replacement occurs with age and with chronic obstruction, and it is not diagnostic on its own.

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Question 4

All of the following reduce salivary flow EXCEPT:

  1. Amitriptyline
  2. Oxybutynin
  3. Diphenhydramine
  4. Cevimeline
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Cevimeline

  • A. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant with strong anticholinergic activity and is a classic cause of dry mouth.
  • B. Oxybutynin is an antimuscarinic given for overactive bladder; dry mouth is its most common side effect.
  • C. Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine, also markedly anticholinergic.
  • D. Correct — this is the exception. Cevimeline is a muscarinic M3 agonist that stimulates salivary secretion. It is prescribed to treat xerostomia in Sjögren syndrome, not to cause it.

Note: Pilocarpine is the other sialogogue in this class. Both are contraindicated in uncontrolled asthma and narrow-angle glaucoma.

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